From: David Abrahams (dave_at_[hidden])
Date: 2002-11-16 00:47:18
Douglas Gregor <gregod_at_[hidden]> writes:
> I've given probably the closest thing to a proof that one can get without
> having a formal specification. It uses only semantic equivalences given in
> the three paragraphs it cites. Is there a problem with it?
FWIW, I'm satisfied.
-- David Abrahams dave_at_[hidden] * http://www.boost-consulting.com Boost support, enhancements, training, and commercial distribution
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