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From: David Abrahams (dave_at_[hidden])
Date: 2002-11-16 00:47:18

Douglas Gregor <gregod_at_[hidden]> writes:

> I've given probably the closest thing to a proof that one can get without
> having a formal specification. It uses only semantic equivalences given in
> the three paragraphs it cites. Is there a problem with it?

FWIW, I'm satisfied.

                       David Abrahams
   dave_at_[hidden] *
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