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Subject: Re: [boost] [ratio] Assignation between equivalent ratios
From: Daniel Hulme (st_at_[hidden])
Date: 2009-12-07 10:23:37

On Mon, Dec 07, 2009 at 11:47:38PM +1100, Christian Schladetsch wrote:
> This may seem petty, but is there a specific need or demonstrable pretext
> for the use of Americanised 'z' over the traditional 's' in the term
> 'normalize'?

Not only petty but misguided. The Oxford English Dictionary gives
"normalize" as the primary spelling and notes that both -ise and -ize
have been around since the 18th century.

It's quite commonplace to assume that -ise is traditional English but
-ize is American, but the historical evidence doesn't bear out this
world-view. OED's -ize entry notes that "prob. the earliest -ize word in
Eng." is "baptize," a traditional spelling that has now fallen into
disuse. The -ise/-ize variation long predates the colonisation of the
Americas by Europeans.

I hope that this helps you to feel better about reading the word
"normalize" correctly spelt.

“But it fareth with  Sentences as with coynes:  In coines,  they that in
smallest compasse  conteine greatest value,  are best esteemed:  and, in
sentences,  those that in  fewest words comprise  most matter,  are most
praised.”    --  Lancelot Andrewes

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